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CCNA 4 Practice Final Exam – Connecting Networks (Version 5.0)

CCNA 4 Practice Final Exam – Connecting Networks (Version 5.0)

 

1
Which is a clientless VPN solution for mobile workers?

GRE
SSL*
SSH
IPsec

2
For a VPN, which technology provides secure remote access over broadband?

ADSL
QoS
IPsec*
LTE

3
A technician is talking to a colleague at a rival company and comparing DSL transfer rates between the two companies. Both companies are in the same city, use the same service provider, and have the same rate/service plan. What is the explanation for why Company A reports higher download speeds than Company B?

Company B shares the conection to the DSLAM with more clients than Company A.
Company A only uses microfilters on branch locations.
Company A is closer to the service provider.*
Company B has a higher volume of POTS voice traffic than Company A.

4
How does an SNMP trap aid network monitoring and management?

It flags attempts to begin a DoS attack on the network.
It collects information for the management station by using polling devices.
It reports to the management station by responding to polls.
It sends an alert message to the management station when a threshold is reached.*

5


Refer to the exhibit. A PC at address 10.1.1.45 is unable to access the Internet. What is the most likely cause of the problem?

The inside and outside interfaces have been configured backwards.
The wrong netmask was used on the NAT pool.
The NAT pool has been exhausted.*
Access-list 1 has not been configured properly.

6


Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has configured routers RTA and RTB, but cannot ping from serial interface to serial interface. Which layer of the OSI model is the most likely cause of the problem?

network
physical
application
data link*
transport

7
A user is unable to connect to the Internet. The network administrator decides to use the top-down troubleshooting approach. Which action should the administrator perform first?

Check the patch cable connection from the PC to the wall.
Run the tracert command to identify the faulty device.
Enter an IP address in the address bar of the web browser to determine if DNS has failed.*
Run the ipconfig command to verify the IP address, subnet mask, and gateway on the PC.

8


Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has configured router Edge_Router as shown in the output. Connectivity is failing between Edge_Router and a non-Cisco router running Frame Relay. What should be done to repair this Layer 2 connectivity?

Modify the OSPF process-id from 10 to 1.
Issue the frame-relay lmi-type ansi command on interface serial 0/1/0.
Issue the ietf keyword when enabling Frame Relay on interface serial 0/1/0.*
Issue the broadcast keyword when performing static mapping on interface serial 0/1/0.
Correct the IP address used in the frame-relay map command.

9
What is an advantage of packet-switched technology over circuit-switched technology?

Packet-switched networks do not require an expensive permanent connection to each endpoint.
Packet-switched networks can efficiently use multiple routes inside a service provider network.*
Packet-switched networks usually experience lower latency than circuit-switched networks experience.
Packet-switched networks are less susceptible to jitter than circuit-switched networks are.

10
A network administrator has moved the company intranet web server from a switch port to a dedicated router interface. How can the administrator determine how this change has affected performance and availability on the company intranet?

Interview departmental administrative assistants and determine if they think load time for web pages has improved.
Compare the hit counts on the company web server for the current week to the values that were recorded in previous weeks.
Determine performance on the intranet by monitoring load times of company web pages from remote sites.
Conduct a performance test and compare with the baseline that was established previously.*

11
Which statement describes cable?

The cable subscriber must purchase a cable modem termination system (CMTS)
Delivering services over a cable network requires downstream frequencies in the 50 to 860 MHz range, and upstream frequencies in the 5 to 42 MHz range.*
Each cable subscriber has dedicated upstream and downstream bandwidth.
Cable subscribers may expect up to 27 Mbps of bandwidth on the upload path.

12
Which syslog entry has a severity code that indicates the most serious situation?

Mar 17 06:42:22: 10.1.1.1 %LINK-3-UPDOWN: Interface FastEthernet0/3, changed state to down*
Mar 17 06:43:02: 10.1.1.1 %LINEPROTO-5-UPDOWN: Line protocol on Interface FastEthernet0/3, changed state to up
Mar 17 06:42:21: 10.1.1.1 %CDP-4-DUPLEX_MISMATCH: duplex mismatch discovered on FastEthernet0/3 (not half duplex), with NA-1.30.foo.com FastEthernet0/24 (half duplex).
Mar 17 06:03:21: 10.1.1.1 %SYS-6-BOOTTIME: Time taken to reboot after reload = 551932 seconds
Mar 17 06:42:20: 10.1.1.1 %SYS-5-CONFIG_I: Configured from console by mwmwm on vty0 (192.168.254.5)
Mar 17 06:42:22: 10.1.1.1 %LINEPROTO-5-UPDOWN: Line protocol on Interface FastEthernet0/3, changed state to down

13


Refer to the exhibit. R3 has the following configuration:

R3# show running-config
–some output text omitted–
interface serial0
bandwidth 128
ip address 192.168.11.2 255.255.255.0
encapsulation frame-relay
frame-relay map ip 192.168.11.2 30 broadcast

After the command R3# debug frame-relay packet is executed, a ping is issued from R3 to R1 but is unsuccessful. Based on the output of the debug command shown in the graphic and the router configuration, what is the problem?

An incorrect IP address exists in the map statement.*
No clock rate has been configured on interface s0.
The encapsulation frame-relay command is missing the broadcast keyword.
There is an incorrect DLCI number in the map statement

14
A technician has been asked to configure a broadband connection for a teleworker. The technician has been instructed that all uploads and downloads for the connection must use existing phone lines. Which broadband technology should be used?

cable
ISDN
DSL*
POTS

15
Which WAN technology uses a fixed payload of 48 bytes and is transported across both switched and permanent virtual circuits?

ISDN
metro Ethernet
Frame Relay
ATM*

16
Which two statements about NetFlow are true? (Choose two.)

NetFlow can be used to collect performance indicators such as interface errors, CPU usage, and memory usage.
NetFlow traffic collectors use a «pull» based model to acquire traffic statistics from ports of interest.
NetFlow can be used to monitor traffic statistics, including packet payload content.
NetFlow is a Cisco-specific feature that enables the collection of detailed traffic profiles.*
NetFlow can be used to create baseline documentation.*
NetFlow is a network monitoring and event reporting tool.

17
Which three items are normally included when a log message is generated by a syslog client and forwarded to a syslog server? (Choose three.)

community ID
checksum field
date and time of message*
ID of sending device*
length of message
message ID*

18
Which statement is true about NCP?

NCP establishes the initial link between PPP devices.
NCP tests the link to ensure that the link quality is sufficient.
Each network protocol has a corresponding NCP.*
Link termination is the responsibility of NCP.

19
What is IPsec?

a protocol that is used to create a VPN at Layer 2 of the OSI model
a 56-bit authentication and encryption method that must be used to create VPN tunnels
a means by which routers and VPN gateways read and forward packets with encrypted packet headers
a specification for the way in which a group of protocols and algorithms combine to create VPNs*

20

Launch PT Hide and Save PT
Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question.
Which message is displayed on the web browser?

PPP is working!*
Configured correctly!
PPP configured!
Well done!

21
Which statement is true about the operation of a site-to-site VPN connection?

The data is encrypted by the VPN gateway at the sending side and decrypted by the target host.
The data is encrypted by the sending host and decrypted by the VPN gateway at the receiving side.
The data is encrypted and decrypted by VPN gateways at both the sending and receiving sides.*
The data is encrypted and decrypted by the sending and target hosts.

22


Refer to the exhibit. What type of Layer 2 encapsulation will be used for connection D on the basis of this configuration on a newly installed router:

RtrA(config)# interface serial0/0/0
RtrA(config-if)# ip address 128.107.0.2 255.255.255.252
RtrA(config-if)# no shutdown

PPP
HDLC*
Ethernet
Frame Relay

23
What are two characteristics of DSL technology? (Choose two.)

Filters and splitters allow POTS and DSL traffic to share the same medium.*
DSL download rates are reduced by large volumes of POTS voice traffic.
Service providers deploy DSL in the local loop of the telephone network.*
DSL is a shared medium that allows many users to share bandwidth available from the DSLAM.
Uploads typically offer larger transfer rates than downloads.

24


Refer to the exhibit. A small office uses an ISR to provide connectivity for both wired and wireless computers. One day, a sales person who is using a laptop cannot connect to Server1 through the wireless network. A network technician attempts to determine if the problem is on the wireless or the wired network. The technician pings successfully from the wireless laptop to the default gateway IP address on the ISR. What should be the next troubleshooting step?

Ping from Server1 to its gateway IP address.*
Ping from Server1 to PC1.
Ping from the laptop to the Ethernet port on the cable modem.
Ping from the laptop to PC1

25
What are two WAN connection enhancements that are achieved by implementing PPPoE? (Choose two.)

Encapsulating Ethernet frames within PPP frames is an efficient use of bandwidth.
DSL CHAP features are included in PPPoE.
PPP enables the ISP to assign an IP address to the customer WAN interface.*
An Ethernet link supports a number of data link protocols.
CHAP enables customer authentication and accounting.*

26
A company has been assigned the 203.0.113.0/27 block of IP addresses by the ISP. The company has over 6000 internal devices. What type of NAT would be most appropriate for the employee workstations of the company?

dynamic NAT
dynamic NAT overload using the pool of addresses*
static NAT
port forwarding
PAT off the external router interface

27
What are two significant benefits that are provided by IPsec? (Choose two.)

encapsulation*
encryption*
automatic creation of a private network
automatic creation of a public network
authentication

28
What makes the Cisco EasyVPN application a useful tool for VPN implementation?

It ensures that remote workers actually use the VPN for connectivity.
It simplifies the configuration tasks for the device that is used as the VPN server.*
It allows a greater variety of network devices to be used for VPN connections.
It provides encryption algorithms unavailable in other systems.
29
What is the purpose of the Cisco Enterprise Architecture?

It provides services and functionality to the core layer by grouping various components into a single component that is located in the access layer.
It replaces the three-layer hierarchical model with a flat network approach.
It reduces overall network traffic by grouping server farms, the management server, corporate intranet, and e-commerce routers in the same layer.
It provides an enterprise-wide system network architecture that helps protect, optimize, and grow the network infrastructure that supports the business processes of a company.*
30
Which basic network module of the Enterprise Architecture is the fundamental component of a campus design?

services module
data center
enterprise edge
access-distribution*

31


Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is trying to configure PAT on R1, but PC-A is unable to access the Internet. The administrator tries to ping a server on the Internet from PC-A and collects the debugs that are shown in the exhibit. Based on this output, what is most likely the cause of the problem?

The inside and outside NAT interfaces have been configured backwards.
The NAT source access list matches the wrong address range.
The address on Fa0/0 should be 64.100.0.1.
The inside global address is not on the same subnet as the ISP.*

32
Which statement best describes a WAN?

WAN is another name for the Internet.
A WAN is a public utility that enables access to the Internet.
A WAN interconnects LANs over long distances.*
A WAN is a LAN that is extended to provide secure remote network access.

33


Refer to the exhibit. A ping from R1 to 10.1.1.2 is successful, but a ping from R1 to any address in the 192.168.2.0 network fails. What is the cause of this problem?

There is no gateway of last resort at R1.
The serial interface between the two routers is down.
The static route for 192.168.2.0 is incorrectly configured.*
A default route is not configured on R1.

34


Refer to the exhibit. Based on the configuration of R1, which device is the inside host and what is the inside local address of this host?

PC-B with address 64.100.0.100
PC-A with address 64.100.0.100
PC-B with address 209.165.200.225*
PC-A with address 209.165.200.225

35
Which three statements are true regarding the Frame Relay LMI? (Choose three.)

The LMI types supported by Cisco routers are CISCO and IETF.
The LMI uses reserved DLCIs to exchange messages between the DTE and DCE.*
The LMI type must always be manually configured.
The available LMI types are CHAP and PAP.
The LMI provides a virtual circuit (VC) status mechanism.*
The LMI type configured on the router must match the one used on the Frame Relay switch.*

36
What type of installation is needed to view syslog messages?

A syslog client must be installed on a workstation.
Because any network equipment can interpret syslog messages, nothing special is needed to view them.
A syslog server must be installed on a router.
A syslog server must be installed on a workstation.*

37
What are three Frame Relay congestion management mechanisms? (Choose three.)

BECN*
FECN*
DE*
DLCI
Inverse ARP
LMI

38
What is the relationship between the DE and the CIR in Frame Relay?

The DE bit will indicate when the CIR committed burst size should be applied.
When the CIR on a given DLCI is exceeded, the DE bit of frames above the CIR is set.*
When the CIR is exceeded, an Inverse ARP DE message notifies the source to reduce frame transmission speed.
The XON/XOFF flow control mechanism sets the DE bit when the CIR is exceeded.

39
What can cause a reduction in available bandwidth on a cable broadband connection?

distance from the central office of the provider
committed information rate
smaller cells
number of subscribers*

40
The output of the show ip interface brief command indicates that Serial0 is up but the line protocol is down. What are two possible causes for the line protocol being in the down state? (Choose two.)

An incorrect default gateway is set on the router.
Keepalives are not being sent by the remote device.*
A network is missing from the routing protocol configuration.
The clock rate is not set on the DTE.
The encapsulation on the Serial0 interface is incorrect.*

41

Launch PT Hide and Save PT
Open the PT activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question.
What is the IP address or range of IP addresses that are used as the inside global address for packets that originate from PC1 and are going to the server?​

209.165.200.231 – 209.165.200.239
192.168.10.21
209.165.200.225 – 200.165.200.229*
192.168.10.1 – 192.168.10.254
209.165.200.231

42
Which three algorithms can be used to encrypt user data in an IPSec VPN framework? (Choose three.)

AES*
SHA
Diffie-Hellman
DES*
ESP
3DES*

43
An administrator needs to configure a router so that internal network servers are accessible from the Internet. Each server is configured with a private IPv4 address. What type of NAT should the administrator configure?

dynamic NAT
PAT
NAT overloading
static NAT*

44
Which two Layer 1 requirements are outlined in the Data-over-Cable Service Interface Specification (DOCSIS)? (Choose two.)

channel widths*
modulation techniques*
maximum data rate
access method
compression techniques

45
What are three parameters that are used by NetFlow to classify traffic? (Choose three.)

TOS field*
number of packets
port number*
ingress interface*
egress interface
number of bytes

46
Which two products are part of the Cisco Collaboration Architecture? (Choose two.)

Cisco Unified Computing
Cisco Unified Communications*
Cisco Borderless End Point​
Cisco TelePresence​*
Cisco Virtual Private Network

47
How many addresses will be available for dynamic NAT translation when a router is configured with the following commands?

Router(config)#ip nat pool TAME 209.165.201.23 209.165.201.30 netmask 255.255.255.224
Router(config)#ip nat inside source list 9 pool TAME

31
24
9
10
8*
7

48
In the Cisco Enterprise Architectures network design approach what is the purpose of the enterprise edge module?

to provide high-speed connectivity and protection for servers
to provide Internet, VPN, and WAN connections*
to forward traffic from one local network to another
to provide access to IP telephony services, wireless controller services, and unified services

49
How does STDM allocate bandwidth on a serial connection?

It ensures that bandwidth is allocated to each channel or time slot regardless of whether the station using the channel has data to transmit.
It ensures each of the time slices are assigned to individual conversations.
It keeps track of conversations that require extra bandwidth. It then dynamically reassigns unused time slices on an as-needed basis.*
It statically assigns bandwidth based upon pre-assigned time slots.

50

Refer to the exhibit. While planning an upgrade, a network administrator uses the Cisco NetFlow utility to analyze data flow in the current network. What generated the most packets?

TCP-other*
UDP-DNS
TCP-Telnet
UDP-other
ICMP

 

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CCNA v7.0 en Español Preguntas y Respuestas

  • CCNA 1
  • CCNA 2
  • CCNA 3
  • Módulos 1 - 3: Examen de conectividad de red básica y comunicaciones
  • Módulos 4 - 7: Examen de conceptos Ethernet
  • Módulos 8 - 10: Examen de comunicación entre redes
  • Módulos 11 - 13: Examen de direccionamiento IP
  • Módulos 14 - 15: Examen de comunicaciones de aplicaciones de red
  • Módulos 16 - 17: Examen de crear y asegurar una red pequeña
  • Evaluación de habilidades prácticas de PT (PTSA)
  • CCNA 1 v7 Examen Final de Práctica Respuestas
  • CCNA 1 v7 Examen Final de habilidades ITN (PTSA) Respuestas
  • CCNA 1 Examen Final Preguntas y Respuestas
  • Módulos 1 - 4: Examen de conceptos de Switching, VLANs y enrutamiento entre redes VLAN
  • Módulos 5 - 6: Examen de Redes Redundantes
  • Módulos 7 - 9: Examen de redes Disponibles y Confiables
  • Módulos 10 - 13: Examen de seguridad L2 y WLAN
  • Módulos 14 - 16: Examen de conceptos de enrutamiento y configuración
  • Evaluación de habilidades prácticas de PT (PTSA) SRWE - Parte 1
  • Evaluación de habilidades prácticas de PT (PTSA) SRWE - Parte 2
  • CCNA 2 Examen Practico Final - SRWE Preguntas y Respuestas
  • Examen Final de Habilidades SRWE (PTSA) Respuestas
  • CCNA 2 Examen Final de SRWE Preguntas y Respuestas
  • Módulos 1 - 2: Examen de conceptos OSPF y configuración
  • Módulos 3 - 5: Examen de seguridad de la red
  • Módulos 6 - 8: Examen de conceptos de WAN
  • Módulos 9 - 12: Examen de optimización, supervisión y solución de problemas de redes
  • Módulos 13 - 14: Examen de Tecnologías de Redes Emergentes
  • Evaluación de habilidades prácticas de PT (PTSA) ENSA Respuestas
  • CCNA 3 Examen Practico Final - ENSA Preguntas y Respuestas
  • Examen Final de Habilidades ENSA (PTSA) Respuestas
  • CCNA 3 Examen Final de ENSA Preguntas y Respuestas Opcion A
  • CCNA 3 Examen Final de ENSA Preguntas y Respuestas Opcion B
  • Examen de práctica de certificación CCNA (200-301) Respuestas

CCNA v7.0 in English

  • CCNA 1 v7.0
  • CCNA 2 v7.0
  • CCNA 3 v7.0
Examen Modulos 1 – 3 Respuestas Examen Modulos 4 – 7 Respuestas Examen Modulos 8 – 10 Respuestas Examen Modulos 11 – 13 Respuestas Examen Modulos 14 – 15 Respuestas Examen Modulos 16 – 17 Respuestas CCNA 1 v7 Practice Skill Assessment CCNA 1 v7 Practice Final Exam CCNA 1 v7 Practice Final Exam
Examen Modulos 1 – 4 Respuestas Examen Modulos 5 – 6 Respuestas Examen Modulos 7 – 9 Respuestas Examen Modulos 10 – 13 Respuestas Examen Modulos 14 – 16 Respuestas CCNA 2 v7 Practice Skill Assessment
Examen Modulos 1 – 2 Respuestas Examen Modulos 3 – 5 Respuestas Examen Modulos 6 – 8 Respuestas Examen Modulos 9 – 12 Respuestas Examen Modulos 13 – 14 Respuestas CCNA 3 v7 Practice Skill Assessment

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